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A 23-year-old female presents with pelvic discomfort and vaginal discharge for the past 3 days. LMP was 7 days ago. She is taking oral contraceptives as directed. Her medical history is significant for a therapeutic abortion with no other hospitalizations or pregnancies. She has had three sexual partners in the past 6 weeks and does not use condoms. Her latest partner reported that he was treated recently for gonorrhea. On examination, she has a mucopurulent discharge with friability of the cervix on speculum examination with no cervical motion tenderness on bimanual examination. Weight: 130 pounds. After collecting the appropriate specimens, which of the following is the best therapeutic option for this patient?


(A)          Oral ofloxacin 400 mg once plus oral metronidazole 500 mg twice daily for 7 days

(B)          Oral fluconazole 150 mg once

(C)          Oral metronidazole 2 g once

(D)          IM ceftriaxone 500 mg plus oral azithromycin 1 g, single dose

(E)          Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units intramuscularly, single dose

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