Whitney, a 34-year-old woman who postponed pregnancy in her 20s has now been
trying to get pregnant for several years. Her husband had a son during a prior
marriage. She consults her gynaecologist for work-up of her infertility. Relevant
history includes menarche at age 13; five lifetime sex partners; cyclic menses
regularly every 30 days; no birth control for 2 years; no pelvic examination in 5 years.
She reports no smoking and no intravenous drug abuse.
The attending gynaecologist recommends a cervical screening workup, which returns
a cervical smear diagnosis of high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion, and a
human papillomavirus (HPV) assay positive for HPV serotype 16. Colposcopy reveals
a friable, vascular lesion on the anterior uterine cervix, a biopsy is taken which shows
severe dysplasia (CIN III).
Please answer the following TWO questions:
1. Describe pathophysiology of cervical cancer. What risk factors can you identify in
Whitney’s case?
(150 words approx.)
2. Why has cervical screening changed from two to five years in Australia? Provide
scientific rationale for the new guidelines.
(250 words approx.)
Attachments:
Assignment-Tw….docx
NUR241-Case-S….pdf
